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NEW QUESTION # 66
Bob, an incident responder at CyberTech Solutions, is investigating a cybercrime attack occurred in the client company. He acquired the evidence data, preserved it, and started performing analysis on acquired evidentiary data to identify the source of the crime and the culprit behind the incident.
Identify the forensic investigation phase in which Bob is currently in.
- A. Investigation phas
- B. Post-investigation phase
- C. Pre-investigation phase
- D. Vulnerability assessment phase
Answer: A
Explanation:
Bob is in the Investigation phase of the forensic investigation process. This phase involves the detailed examination and analysis of the collected evidence to identify the source of the crime and the perpetrator behind the incident. It is a crucial step that follows the acquisition and preservation of evidence, where the incident responder applies various techniques and methodologies to analyze the evidentiary data. This analysis aims to uncover how the cybercrime was committed, trace the activities of the culprit, and gather actionable intelligence to support legal actions and prevent future incidents.References:The CREST materials discuss the stages of a forensic investigation, emphasizing the investigation phase as the point at which the incident responder analyzes evidence to draw conclusions about the incident's specifics.
NEW QUESTION # 67
A colleague wants to minimize their security responsibility because they are in a small organization. They are evaluating a new application that is offered in different forms. Which form would result in the least amount of responsibility for the colleague?
- A. PaaS
- B. laaS
- C. saaS
- D. On-prom installation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Software as a Service (SaaS) offers the least amount of security responsibility for the end-user or organization, as the service provider manages the underlying infrastructure, software maintenance, security patching, and updates. Choosing a SaaS application means the colleague's organization would not be responsible for the physical servers, operating systems, or the application's security configurations, making it the best option for minimizing their security responsibilities.
References:In the Certified Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) course materials, the various cloud service models (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS) are discussed with a focus on their implications for security responsibilities and management.
NEW QUESTION # 68
An incident handler is analyzing email headers to find out suspicious emails.
Which of the following tools he/she must use in order to accomplish the task?
- A. Barracuda Email Security Gateway
- B. Gophish
- C. SPAMfighter
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Barracuda Email Security Gateway is designed to manage and filter inbound and outbound email traffic to protect organizations from email-borne threats and data leaks. As an incident handler analyzing email headers to find out suspicious emails, using a tool like the Barracuda Email Security Gateway would be appropriate. This tool can help identify and block spam, phishing, malware, and other malicious email threats, making it easier to focus on analyzing potentially harmful emails more closely.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Kathy wants to ensure that she shares threat intelligence containing sensitive information with the appropriate audience. Hence, she used traffic light protocol (TLP).
Which TLP color would you signify that information should be shared only within a particular community?
- A. Red
- B. Green
- C. White
- D. Amber
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the Traffic Light Protocol (TLP), the color amber signifies that the information should be limited to those who have a need-to-know within the specified community or organization, and not further disseminated without permission. TLP Red indicates information that should not be disclosed outside of the originating organization. TLP Green indicates information that is limited to the community but can be disseminated within the community without restriction. TLP White, or TLP Clear, indicates information that can be shared freely with no restrictions. Therefore, for information meant to be shared within a particular community with some restrictions on further dissemination, TLP Amber is the appropriate designation.References:
* FIRST (Forum of Incident Response and Security Teams) Traffic Light Protocol (TLP) Guidelines
* CISA (Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency) TLP Guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 70
Racheal is an incident handler working in InceptionTech organization. Recently, numerous employees are complaining about receiving emails from unknown senders. In order to prevent employees against spoofing emails and keeping security in mind, Racheal was asked to take appropriate actions in this matter. As a part of her assignment, she needs to analyze the email headers to check the authenticity of received emails.
Which of the following protocol/authentication standards she must check in email header to analyze the email authenticity?
- A. SNMP
- B. ARP
- C. POP
- D. DKIM
Answer: D
Explanation:
Racheal should check for DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) in the email headers to analyze the authenticity of received emails. DKIM is an email authentication method designed to detect email spoofing. It provides a way for the receiver to check that an email claimed to have come from a specific domain was indeed authorized by the owner of that domain. It achieves this by affixing a digital signature, linked to a domain name, to each outgoing email message. The recipient can verify this signature to confirm that the email was not altered during its transmission and that it indeed comes from the specified domain, thereby helping to prevent email spoofing. Other options like SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), POP (Post Office Protocol), and ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) are not directly related to email authenticity checks.References:Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification materials cover various protocols and standards for ensuring the security and authenticity of communications, including email security protocols like DKIM.
NEW QUESTION # 71
In which of the following attacks does the attacker exploit vulnerabilities in a computer application before the software developer can release a patch for them?
- A. Distributed network attack
- B. Advanced persistent attack
- C. Zero-day attack
- D. Active online attack
Answer: C
Explanation:
A zero-day attack exploits vulnerabilities in software or hardware that are unknown to the vendor or for which a patch has not yet been released. These attacks are particularly dangerous because they take advantage of the window of time between the vulnerability's discovery and the availability of a fix, leaving systems exposed to potential exploitation. Zero-day attacks require a proactive and comprehensive approach to security, including the use of advanced threat detection systems and threat intelligence to identify and mitigate potential threats before they can be exploited.References:
* "Understanding Zero-Day Exploits," by MITRE
* "Zero-Day Threats: What They Are and How to Protect Against Them," by Symantec
NEW QUESTION # 72
Eric who is an incident responder is working on developing incident-handling plans and procedures. As part of this process, he is performing analysis on the organizational network to generate a report and to develop policies based on the acquired results.
Which of the following tools will help him in analyzing network and its related traffic?
- A. Burp Suite
- B. FaceNiff
- C. Whois
- D. Wireshark
Answer: D
Explanation:
Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer that allows users to capture and interactively browse the traffic running on a computer network. It is a crucial tool for incident responders like Eric who are developing incident-handling plans and need to analyze network traffic and patterns. Wireshark can provide detailed information about the network, including protocols used, source and destination of packets, and potential signs of malicious activity, making it invaluable for developing informed policies and procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 73
Eric works as a system administrator at ABC organization and previously granted several users with access privileges to the organizations systems with unlimited permissions. These privileged users could prospectively misuse their rights unintentionally, maliciously, or could be deceived by attackers that could trick them to perform malicious activities. Which of the following guidelines would help incident handlers eradicate insider attacks by privileged users?
- A. Do not enable default administrative accounts to ensure accountability
- B. Do not control the access to administrator ano privileged users
- C. Do not allow administrators to use unique accounts during the installation process
- D. Do not use encryption methods to prevent, administrators and privileged users from accessing backup tapes and sensitive information
Answer: A
Explanation:
Not enabling default administrative accounts is crucial to ensuring accountability and minimizing the risk of insider attacks by privileged users. By disabling or renaming default accounts, organizations can better track the actions performed by individual administrators, reducing the risk of unauthorized or malicious activities going unnoticed. This practice is part of a broader approach to privilege management that includes limiting permissions to the minimum necessary and monitoring the use of administrative privileges.
References:The CREST CPTIA program emphasizes the importance of managing privileged access and ensuring accountability among users with elevated permissions to protect against insider threats and misuse of administrative rights.
NEW QUESTION # 74
Tibson works as an incident responder for MNC based in Singapore. He is investigating a web application security incident recently faced by the company. The attack is performed on a MS SQL Server hosted by the company. In the detection and analysis phase, he used regular expressions to analyze and detect SQL meta-characters that led to SQL injection attack.
Identify the regular expression used by Tibson to detect SQL injection attack on MS SQL Server.
- A. ((\.\.\\)|(\.\.\/))
- B. ((\%3C)|<)((\%2F)|\/)*(script)((\%3E)|>)
- C. /exec(\s|\+)+(s|x)p\w+/ix
- D. ((\.|%2E)(\.|%2E)(\/|%2F|\\|%5C))
Answer: C
Explanation:
The regular expression/exec(\s|\+)+(s|x)p\w+/ixis designed to match patterns that resemble SQL injection attempts, specifically targeting MS SQL Server. This expression looks for the use of theexeccommand followed by one or more spaces or plus signs, and then patterns that start withsporxp, which are prefixes commonly used in SQL Server stored procedures and extended stored procedures. These are often targeted in SQL injection attacks to execute malicious SQL statements. The regular expression provided is a tool used by incident responders like Tibson to identify and analyze potential SQL injection attempts by looking for suspicious patterns in SQL queries.
NEW QUESTION # 75
Jame, a professional hacker, is trying to hack the confidential information of a target organization. He identified the vulnerabilities in the target system and created a tailored deliverable malicious payload using an exploit and a backdoor to send it to the victim.
Which of the following phases of cyber kill chain methodology is Jame executing?
- A. Reconnaissance
- B. Installation
- C. Exploitation
- D. Weaponization
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the cyber kill chain methodology, the phase where Jame is creating a tailored malicious deliverable that includes an exploit and a backdoor is known as 'Weaponization'. During this phase, the attacker prepares by coupling a payload, such as a virus or worm, with an exploit into a deliverable format, intending to compromise the target's system. This step follows the initial 'Reconnaissance' phase, where the attacker gathers information on the target, and precedes the 'Delivery' phase, where the weaponized bundle is transmitted to the target. Weaponization involves the preparation of the malware to exploit the identified vulnerabilities in the target system.References:
* Lockheed Martin's Cyber Kill Chain framework
* "Intelligence-Driven Computer Network Defense Informed by Analysis of Adversary Campaigns and Intrusion Kill Chains," leading to the development of the Cyber Kill Chain framework
NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following characteristics of APT refers to numerous attempts done by the attacker to gain entry to the target's network?
- A. Timeliness
- B. Multiphased
- C. Attack origination points
- D. Risk tolerance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs) are characterized by their 'Multiphased' nature, referring to the various stages or phases the attacker undertakes to breach a network, remain undetected, and achieve their objectives.
This characteristic includes numerous attempts to gain entry to the target's network, often starting with reconnaissance, followed by initial compromise, and progressing through stages such as establishment of a backdoor, expansion, data exfiltration, and maintaining persistence. This multiphased approach allows attackers to adapt and pursue their objectives despite potential disruptions or initial failures in their campaign.
References:
* "Understanding Advanced Persistent Threats and Complex Malware," by FireEye
* MITRE ATT&CK Framework, detailing the multiphased nature of adversary tactics and techniques
NEW QUESTION # 77
Bob, a threat analyst, works in an organization named TechTop. He was asked to collect intelligence to fulfil the needs and requirements of the Red Tam present within the organization.
Which of the following are the needs of a RedTeam?
- A. Intelligence related to increased attacks targeting a particular software or operating system vulnerability
- B. Intelligence on latest vulnerabilities, threat actors, and their tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs)
- C. Intelligence extracted latest attacks analysis on similar organizations, which includes details about latest threats and TTPs
- D. Intelligence that reveals risks related to various strategic business decisions
Answer: B
Explanation:
Red Teams are tasked with emulating potential adversaries to test and improve the security posture of an organization. They require intelligence on the latest vulnerabilities, threat actors, and their TTPs to simulate realistic attack scenarios and identify potential weaknesses in the organization's defenses. This information helps Red Teams in crafting their attack strategies to be as realistic and relevant as possible, thereby providing valuable insights into how actual attackers might exploit the organization's systems. This need contrasts with the requirements of other teams or roles within an organization, such as strategic decision-makers, who might be more interested in intelligence relatedto strategic risks or Blue Teams, which focus on defending against and responding to attacks.References:
* Red Team Field Manual (RTFM)
* MITRE ATT&CK Framework for understanding threat actor TTPs
NEW QUESTION # 78
Allan performed a reconnaissance attack on his corporate network as part of a red-team activity. He scanned the IP range to find live host IP addresses. What type of technique did he use to exploit the network?
- A. Port scanning
- B. Ping sweeping
- C. DNS foot printing
- D. Social engineering
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ping sweeping is a technique used in network reconnaissance to identify which IP addresses in a range are active or live. By sending ICMP echo requests ("ping") to multiple hosts and observing which ones respond, an attacker or, in this case, a red team member like Allan, can determine which systems are up and potentially vulnerable to further exploration or attack. This method is foundational for mapping the network before deploying more targeted exploits or scans.
References:EC-Council's Certified Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) program discusses various reconnaissance techniques, including ping sweeping, as a preliminary step in network analysis and vulnerability assessment.
NEW QUESTION # 79
An analyst wants to disseminate the information effectively so that the consumers can acquire and benefit out of the intelligence.
Which of the following criteria must an analyst consider in order to make the intelligence concise, to the point, accurate, and easily understandable and must consist of a right balance between tables, narrative, numbers, graphics, and multimedia?
- A. The right content
- B. The right presentation
- C. The right order
- D. The right time
Answer: B
Explanation:
For intelligence to be effectively disseminated and utilized by consumers, it must be presented in a manner that is concise, accurate, easily understandable, and engaging. This involves a careful balance of narrative, numerical data, tables, graphics, and potentially multimedia elements to convey the information clearly and compellingly. The right presentation takes into account the preferences and needs of the intelligence consumers, as well as the context andurgency of the information. By focusing on how the intelligence is presented, the analyst ensures that the content is not only consumed but also actionable, facilitating informed decision-making.
NEW QUESTION # 80
ABC is a well-established cyber-security company in the United States. The organization implemented the automation of tasks such as data enrichment and indicator aggregation. They also joined various communities to increase their knowledge about the emerging threats. However, the security teams can only detect and prevent identified threats in a reactive approach.
Based on threat intelligence maturity model, identify the level of ABC to know the stage at which the organization stands with its security and vulnerabilities.
- A. Level 2: increasing CTI capabilities
- B. Level 3: CTI program in place
- C. Level 1: preparing for CTI
- D. Level 0: vague where to start
Answer: B
Explanation:
ABC cyber-security company, which has implemented automation for tasks such as data enrichment and indicator aggregation and has joined various communities to increase knowledge about emerging threats, is demonstrating characteristics of a Level 3 maturity in the threat intelligence maturity model. At this level, organizations have a formal Cyber Threat Intelligence (CTI) program in place, with processes and tools implemented to collect, analyze, and integrate threat intelligence into their security operations. Although they may still be reactive in detecting and preventing threats, the existence of structured CTI capabilities indicates a more developed stage of threat intelligence maturity.References:
* "Building a Threat Intelligence Program," by Recorded Future
* "The Threat Intelligence Handbook," by Chris Pace, Cybersecurity Evangelist at Recorded Future
NEW QUESTION # 81
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